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Palo Alto Networks NetSec-Generalist Exam Syllabus Topics:

Topic	Details
Topic 1	NGFW and SASE Solution Functionality: This section targets Cybersecurity Specialists to understand the functionality of Cloud NGFWs, PA-Series, CN-Series, and VM-Series firewalls. It includes perimeter security, zone segmentation, high availability configurations, security policy implementation, and monitoring logging practices. A critical skill assessed is implementing zone security policies effectively.
Topic 2	NGFW and SASE Solution Maintenance and Configuration: This section focuses on System Administrators in maintaining configuring Palo Alto Networks hardware firewalls (VM-Series CN-Series) along with Cloud NGFWs. It emphasizes updating profiles security policies to ensure system integrity. A significant skill assessed is maintaining firewall updates effectively.
Topic 3	Connectivity and Security: This section targets Network Managers in maintaining configuring network security across on-premises cloud hybrid networks by focusing on network segmentation strategies along with implementing secure policies certificates to protect connectivity points within these environments effectively. A critical skill assessed is segmenting networks securely to prevent unauthorized access risks.
Topic 4	Infrastructure Management and CDSS: This section measures the skills of Infrastructure Managers in managing CDSS infrastructure by configuring profiles policies for IoT devices or enterprise DLP SaaS security solutions while ensuring data encryption access control practices are implemented correctly across these platforms. A key skill measured is securing IoT devices through proper configuration.

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Palo Alto Networks Network Security Generalist Sample Questions (Q36-Q41):

NEW QUESTION # 36
Which step is necessary to ensure an organization is using the inline cloud analysis features in its Advanced Threat Prevention subscription?

A. Configure Advanced Threat Prevention profiles with default settings and only focus on high-risk traffic to avoid affecting network performance.
B. Update or create a new anti-spyware security profile and enable the appropriate local deep -learning models.
C. Enable SSL decryption in Security policies to inspect and analyze encrypted traffic for threats.
D. Disable anti-spyware to avoid performance impacts and rely solely on external threat intelligence.

Answer: C

Explanation:
The inline cloud analysis feature in the Advanced Threat Prevention subscription enables real-time threat detection using machine learning (ML) and deep-learning models. However, for it to be effective, the firewall must decrypt encrypted traffic to analyze potential threats hidden within TLS/SSL connections.
Why SSL Decryption is Necessary?
Threat actors often hide malware and exploits in encrypted traffic.
Without SSL decryption, inline cloud analysis cannot inspect encrypted threats.
Decryption allows full visibility into traffic for inline deep-learning threat detection.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect?
A . Configure Advanced Threat Prevention profiles with default settings and only focus on high-risk traffic to avoid affecting network performance. ❌ Incorrect, because default settings may not enable inline cloud analysis, and focusing only on high-risk traffic reduces security effectiveness.
C . Update or create a new anti-spyware security profile and enable the appropriate local deep-learning models. ❌ Incorrect, because Anti-Spyware profiles detect command-and-control (C2) traffic, but inline cloud analysis requires inspecting full packet content, which requires SSL decryption.
D . Disable anti-spyware to avoid performance impacts and rely solely on external threat intelligence. ❌ Incorrect, because disabling anti-spyware would leave the network vulnerable. Inline cloud analysis works in conjunction with threat intelligence and local prevention capabilities.
Reference to Firewall Deployment and Security Features:
Firewall Deployment - Ensures encrypted traffic is inspected for threats.
Security Policies - Requires SSL decryption policies to apply Advanced Threat Prevention.
VPN Configurations - Ensures decryption and inspection apply to VPN traffic.
Threat Prevention - Works alongside Advanced WildFire and inline ML models.
WildFire Integration - Inspects unknown threats in decrypted files.
Zero Trust Architectures - Enforces continuous inspection of all encrypted traffic.
Thus, the correct answer is:
✅ B. Enable SSL decryption in Security policies to inspect and analyze encrypted traffic for threats.

NEW QUESTION # 37
What will collect device information when a user has authenticated and connected to a GlobalProtect gateway?

A. RADIUS Authentication
B. IP address
C. Session ID
D. Host information profile (HIP)

Answer: D

Explanation:
When a user authenticates and connects to a GlobalProtect gateway, the firewall can collect and evaluate device information using Host Information Profile (HIP). This feature helps enforce security policies based on the device's posture before granting or restricting network access.
Why is HIP the Correct Answer?
What is HIP?
Host Information Profile (HIP) is a feature in GlobalProtect that gathers security-related information from the endpoint device, such as:
OS version
Patch level
Antivirus status
Disk encryption status
Host-based firewall status
Running applications
How Does HIP Work?
When a user connects to a GlobalProtect gateway, their device submits its HIP report to the firewall.
The firewall evaluates this information against configured security policies.
If the device meets security compliance, access is granted; otherwise, remediation actions (e.g., blocking access) can be applied.
Other Answer Choices Analysis
(A) RADIUS Authentication - While RADIUS is used for user authentication, it does not collect device security posture.
(B) IP Address - The user's IP address is tracked but does not provide device security information.
(D) Session ID - A session ID identifies the user session but does not collect host-based security details.
Reference and Justification:
Firewall Deployment - HIP profiles help enforce security policies based on device posture.
Security Policies - Administrators use HIP checks to restrict non-compliant devices.
Threat Prevention & WildFire - HIP ensures that endpoints are properly patched and protected.
Panorama - HIP reports can be monitored centrally via Panorama.
Zero Trust Architectures - HIP enforces device trust in Zero Trust models.
Thus, Host Information Profile (HIP) is the correct answer, as it collects device security information when a user connects to a GlobalProtect gateway.

NEW QUESTION # 38
Why would an enterprise architect use a Zero Trust Network Access (ZTNA) connector instead of a service connection for private application access?

A. It controls traffic from the mobile endpoint to any of the organization's internal resources.
B. It functions as the attachment point for IPSec-based connections to remote site or branch networks.
C. It supports traffic sourced from on-premises or public cloud-based resources to mobile users and remote networks.
D. It automatically discovers private applications and suggests Security policy rules for them.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION # 39
A hospital system allows mobile medical imaging trailers to connect directly to the internal network of its various campuses. The network security team is concerned about this direct connection and wants to begin implementing a Zero Trust approach in the flat network.
Which solution provides cost-effective network segmentation and security enforcement in this scenario?

A. Configure access control lists on the campus core switches to control and inspect traffic based on image size, type, and frequency.
B. Configure separate zones to isolate the imaging trailer's traffic and apply enforcement using the existing campus core firewalls.
C. Deploy edge firewalls at each campus entry point to monitor and control various traffic types through direct connection with the trailers.
D. Manually inspect large images like holograms and MRIs, but permit smaller images to pass freely through the campus core firewalls.

Answer: B

Explanation:
In a Zero Trust Architecture (ZTA), network segmentation is critical to prevent unauthorized lateral movement within a flat network. Since the hospital system allows mobile medical imaging trailers to connect directly to its internal network, this poses a significant security risk, as these trailers may introduce malware, vulnerabilities, or unauthorized access to sensitive medical data.
The most cost-effective and practical solution in this scenario is:
Creating separate security zones for the imaging trailers.
Applying access control and inspection policies via the hospital's existing core firewalls instead of deploying new hardware.
Implementing strict policy enforcement to ensure that only authorized communication occurs between the trailers and the hospital's network.
Why Separate Zones with Enforcement is the Best Solution?
Network Segmentation for Zero Trust
By placing the medical imaging trailers in their own firewall-enforced zone, they are isolated from the main hospital network.
This reduces attack surface and prevents an infected trailer from spreading malware to critical hospital systems.
Granular security policies ensure only necessary communications occur between zones.
Cost-Effective Approach
Uses existing core firewalls instead of deploying costly additional edge firewalls at every campus.
Reduces complexity by leveraging the current security infrastructure.
Visibility & Security Enforcement
The firewall enforces security policies, such as allowing only medical imaging protocols while blocking unauthorized traffic.
Integration with Threat Prevention and WildFire ensures that malicious files or traffic anomalies are detected.
Logging and monitoring via Panorama helps the security team track and respond to threats effectively.
Other Answer Choices Analysis
(A) Deploy edge firewalls at each campus entry point
This is an expensive approach, requiring multiple hardware firewalls at every hospital location.
While effective, it is not the most cost-efficient solution when existing core firewalls can enforce the necessary segmentation and policies.
(B) Manually inspect large images like holograms and MRIs
This does not align with Zero Trust principles.
Manual inspection is impractical, as it slows down medical workflows.
Threats do not depend on image size; malware can be embedded in small and large files alike.
(D) Configure access control lists (ACLs) on core switches
ACLs are limited in security enforcement, as they operate at Layer 3/4 and do not provide deep inspection (e.g., malware scanning, user authentication, or Zero Trust enforcement).
Firewalls offer application-layer visibility, which ACLs on switches cannot provide.
Switches do not log and analyze threats like firewalls do.
Reference and Justification:
Firewall Deployment - Firewall-enforced network segmentation is a key practice in Zero Trust.
Security Policies - Granular policies ensure medical imaging traffic is controlled and monitored.
VPN Configurations - If remote trailers are involved, secure VPN access can be enforced within the zones.
Threat Prevention & WildFire - Firewalls can scan imaging files (e.g., DICOM images) for malware.
Panorama - Centralized visibility into all traffic between hospital zones and trailers.
Zero Trust Architectures - This solution follows Zero Trust principles by segmenting untrusted devices and enforcing least privilege access.
Thus, Configuring separate zones (C) is the correct answer, as it provides cost-effective segmentation, Zero Trust enforcement, and security visibility using existing firewall infrastructure.

NEW QUESTION # 40
Which functionality does an NGFW use to determine whether new session setups are legitimate or illegitimate?

A. Random Early Detection (RED)
B. SYN bit
C. SYN cookies
D. SYN flood protection

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION # 41
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